9) C

Let pay of males be = ‘p’
We know that males were paid 22.8%.
According to the formula given in the question,

100 x (male pay-female pay/male pay) = gender gap percentage
Substituting, we get
100 x (p-16,000/p) = 22.8
(p-16000)/p = 22.8/100 = 0.228
p-16,000 = 0.228p
Rearranging, we get,
p-0.228p = 16,000
0.772p = 16,000
p = 16,000/0.772 = approximately £20,700

## 2 thoughts on “2011 Section 1 Question 9”

1. Hi says:

Can you explain how you do this in your head in 2 mins?

1. Manas Potdar says:

Hi, we understand these sorts of maths questions are very difficult to complete mentally, which is why you can do your workings on the question paper. Also, if you find that you are having trouble completing a certain question or that the workings are difficult and long, please skip the question, move on to complete easier ones and return to the skipped ones later. You do not get marked down for incorrect answers so you can guess the answer if you run out of time.

Thank you and good luck!